All of this is just academic to satisfy my own curiousity.
The thoughts struck me & I ran with them.
I confess to having a conspiracy theorist bone in me & wouldn't put it past a company to charge for the sleeper behind a drivers back & make a ton of money without causing a riot in the terminals.
Except for the company & the IRS, who would ever be the wiser?
I can't think of too many roadside places more expensive than a T/S to eat.
If I recall correctly, didn't I see M&IE top out around $64?
That's not much over the $52 for drivers.
I guess the IRS does have a heart in one or two places.
If I read the per diem rules correctly, it appears to me that if the company has an accounting mechanism in place that satisfies the IRS with the basic proof it requires to substantiate the common per diem expense & amounts, the driver doesn't need to keep those receipts (although I agree that he should).
I think the log book was sufficient evidence for the driver to prove when & where he was at the time & that the expense was business related.
Lacking a motel receipt, would it not be reasonable to assume the driver slept in the truck during a period of time?
If it's reasonable for the company to charge for the use of it's sleepers & the company has an accounting procedure in place that satisfies the IRS's need to justify the expense without driver tendered receipts, is it not reasonable for the company to charge the driver's per diem account without necessarily alerting the driver?
I'm guessing you are refering to depreciation et al?
But, if as you say the "renting" of the sleeper is a valid charge, wouldn't that be an entirely different expense & not considered under a depreciation rule?
Wouldn't that be something?
I'm quite sure the company bean-counters have already considered this one.
I don't think it's a realistic worry though.