Good stuff here. The jist I get is this: the reason the fmcsa states that direct tie downs get 50% while indirect gets 100% is that in practice, direct tie downs are frequently at complex angles which make calculating the exact “pull” murky , so the fmcsa assigned a one size fits all judgement of 50% simply for the sake of simplicity? Does this sound correct?
Threads like this make the internet bearable.
The way it was stated is that an indirect tiedown increases the downward force keeping it in place better. A direct tiedown doesn’t, I’m not defending their assessment per se. I will say I can see where a chain in a direct attachment pulling at an angle needs one on the other side pulling opposite to keep it tight where an indirect doesn’t necessarily.